Nadine Kahn Germany Local time: 10:45 Partial member (2009) English to German + ...
TOPIC STARTER
Two versions in one bible
Jun 2, 2007
juvera wrote:
Hi
Enkay wrote:
juvera wrote:
Darby translation:
Jeremiah 48:47
But I will turn the captivity of Moab at the end of the days, saith Jehovah. Thus far is the judgement of Moab.
All other versions (New International, New American Standard, New Living, King James, New English Standard, Contemporary English, etc.):
SODOMITES » Destroyed by fire as a judgement (Genesis 19:24,25)
All others are spelt as judgement or judgements.
By the way, what about spelt / spelled?
I think that's strange... so, do all these sites lie?
48:47 Yet will I bring again the captivity of Moab in the latter days, saith the LORD. Thus far [is] the judgment of Moab.
Or is it just a preference? I think the Bible mustn't distinguish between the two words here. Isn't it supposed to be one version only?
As regards "spelt/spelled" I'd think they could be used equally, not depending on a given text, whereas "spelt" is the preferred spelling in GB.
The Darby version of the Bible has "judgement" in Jeremiah
48:47, and in Genesis 19:24 all versions have.
Any other occurence in all versions spell the word as "judgment".
You are asking: Isn't it supposed to be one version only?
If it refers to the Bible, of course, not.
If it refers to the spelling of the word; it is not the only one spelt differently in the same version of the Bible.
Why would any of the versions lie? I am sure they tried to create a translation to the best of their ability from the source(s) they believed was the most authentic, clearest, etc., taking into account the period and the audience they were aiming at.
About the past and past participle of spell I know that spelt/spelled can be used equally and spelt is the preferred spelling in the UK, but I wanted to hear if there is any other opinion.
Why do to point out "Of course not" here? I can see why the word "God" may have different meanings/translations, but why is it the same with "judgement"? And, keeping in mind they used different versions in ONE and the same Bible. Is it a matter of meaning? I truely believe it isn't...
Kind regards
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juvera United Kingdom Local time: 09:45 Member (2005) English to Hungarian + ...
Reply.
Jun 3, 2007
Enkay wrote:
Is it a matter of meaning? I truely believe it isn't...
Of course not. I never said that.
I merely pointed out the occurence of the different spelling in the various versions of the Bible.
Perhaps I should have written "statistics of occurence of judgment / judgement" as a title of my posting, but I thought "just for information" would be sufficient.
I certainly didn't imply that the different spelling conveys different meaning, because I agree with you, it doesn't.
Kind regards
J
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juvera United Kingdom Local time: 09:45 Member (2005) English to Hungarian + ...
Oh my...
Jun 3, 2007
And I sincerely hope you won't misunderstand the following sentences: "Of course not. I never said that".
It refers to the quote from you, immediately above.
Please don't think that I refute the fact that I wrote the same sentence as the first in my previous post, but this time it is an independent statement.
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