differential in dissolution rates

English translation: difference in divorce rates between the two groups

09:11 Feb 23, 2009
English language (monolingual) [PRO]
Science - Mathematics & Statistics / psychology / family therapy
English term or phrase: differential in dissolution rates
I have difficulty understanding the statistical logic of the sentence below. Can someone explain it in simpler language, please? :-)
Also, I don't know how to understand "has EVEN reversed" in this context.I'll post it in a separate question if necessary.


Early research on cohabiting couples suggested that those who married after cohabiting were more likely to divorce.
In more recent cohorts, in which cohabitation is more frequent, the differential in dissolution rates has been declining and has even reversed slightly.
Allda
Local time: 14:33
Selected answer:difference in divorce rates between the two groups
Explanation:
I'm afraid I don't agree with Jack's reading.
Dissolution = divorce
I'm quite certain it's saying that for the more recent cohort (for example, all couples who married in 1990) the difference in divorce rates between couples who cohabited and those who did not is less than the difference between cohabiting couples/noncohabiting couples for an earlier cohort (for example, all couples who married in 1970).

Here's a made-up example that matches the narrative:

married in 1970:
cohabited: 56% divorced
no cohabiation: 46% divorced

married in 1980:
cohabited: 47% divorced
no cohabitation: 42% divorced <- smaller difference

married in 1990: cohabited: 37% divorced
no cohabitation: 39% divorced <- reversal of dissolution rates

(Just for the curious, divorce rates are lower overall for more recent cohorts because the longer you're married, the more likely you are to wind up divorced, just due to the effects of time--this is one of the tricky things about tracking trends in divorce rates)

--------------------------------------------------
Note added at 3 hrs (2009-02-23 13:09:31 GMT)
--------------------------------------------------

for some reason, part of my answer got cut off!

married in 1970:
cohabited: 56% divorced
no cohabiation: 46% divorced

married in 1980:
cohabited: 47% divorced
no cohabitation: 42% divorced (smaller "differential"--ie, difference between the two groups)

married in 1990:
cohabited: 35% divorced
no cohabitation: 37% divorced
(reversal of differential--for this cohort, couples who cohabited are *less* likely to divorce, while in early cohorts couples who cohabited are *more* likely to have divorced)
Selected response from:

Kathryn Litherland
United States
Local time: 08:33
Grading comment
Thank you for explaining the statistics so well !
4 KudoZ points were awarded for this answer



SUMMARY OF ALL EXPLANATIONS PROVIDED
5 +4difference in divorce rates between the two groups
Kathryn Litherland
3 +2See amended sentence
Jack Doughty


Discussion entries: 5





  

Answers


12 mins   confidence: Answerer confidence 3/5Answerer confidence 3/5 peer agreement (net): +2
See amended sentence


Explanation:
I wasn't familiar with the word "cohort" in this sense, but found a definition of it:
In statistics and demography, a cohort is a group of subjects -- most often humans from a given population -- defined by experiencing an event (typically birth) in a particular time span. ...
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cohort_(statistics)
So:
In more recent groups of subjects, in which cohabitation is more frequent,
the difference between those whose marriages were dissolved and those whose marriages were not has been declining and has even moved slightly the other way, so a few more are now staying together.

Jack Doughty
United Kingdom
Local time: 13:33
Native speaker of: English
PRO pts in category: 6
Notes to answerer
Asker: Thank you !


Peer comments on this answer (and responses from the answerer)
agree  Harry Borsje: modification at the end: ... so couples that initially cohabited are even less likely to divorce as compared to couples that didn't.
1 hr
  -> Thank you. OK, but "even less likely to divorce than those who didn't" would be more concise.

agree  Gary D: I agree with you on cohort, it is mainly used for criminals masterminding a job, not couples living in a de facto relationship.
1 hr
  -> Thank you.

neutral  B D Finch: I am afraid that I find your explanation and rewording conducive to bafflement and inaccuracy.
4 hrs
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3 hrs   confidence: Answerer confidence 5/5 peer agreement (net): +4
difference in divorce rates between the two groups


Explanation:
I'm afraid I don't agree with Jack's reading.
Dissolution = divorce
I'm quite certain it's saying that for the more recent cohort (for example, all couples who married in 1990) the difference in divorce rates between couples who cohabited and those who did not is less than the difference between cohabiting couples/noncohabiting couples for an earlier cohort (for example, all couples who married in 1970).

Here's a made-up example that matches the narrative:

married in 1970:
cohabited: 56% divorced
no cohabiation: 46% divorced

married in 1980:
cohabited: 47% divorced
no cohabitation: 42% divorced <- smaller difference

married in 1990: cohabited: 37% divorced
no cohabitation: 39% divorced <- reversal of dissolution rates

(Just for the curious, divorce rates are lower overall for more recent cohorts because the longer you're married, the more likely you are to wind up divorced, just due to the effects of time--this is one of the tricky things about tracking trends in divorce rates)

--------------------------------------------------
Note added at 3 hrs (2009-02-23 13:09:31 GMT)
--------------------------------------------------

for some reason, part of my answer got cut off!

married in 1970:
cohabited: 56% divorced
no cohabiation: 46% divorced

married in 1980:
cohabited: 47% divorced
no cohabitation: 42% divorced (smaller "differential"--ie, difference between the two groups)

married in 1990:
cohabited: 35% divorced
no cohabitation: 37% divorced
(reversal of differential--for this cohort, couples who cohabited are *less* likely to divorce, while in early cohorts couples who cohabited are *more* likely to have divorced)

Kathryn Litherland
United States
Local time: 08:33
Native speaker of: Native in EnglishEnglish
PRO pts in category: 4
Grading comment
Thank you for explaining the statistics so well !
Notes to answerer
Asker: Thank you very much for the convincing explanation !


Peer comments on this answer (and responses from the answerer)
agree  B D Finch: Absolutely and you are explaining, as opposed to muddling, the statistical terminology.
21 mins

agree  Harry Borsje: With your second discussion note above: yes
57 mins

agree  Tina Vonhof (X): Also agree with your interpretation of 'even'.
4 hrs

agree  Phong Le
16 hrs
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