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no morfema

English translation: onset mora

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GLOSSARY ENTRY (DERIVED FROM QUESTION BELOW)
Portuguese term or phrase:the first mora
English translation:onset mora
Entered by: zabrowa
Options:
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08:56 Oct 25, 2006
Portuguese to English translations [PRO]
Science - Linguistics / Verb
Portuguese term or phrase: no morfema
SEE CONTEXT, PLEASE

No tempo passado, a primeira pessoa singular se expressa no verbo através do espraiamento progressivo do tom alto da primeira mora da sílaba que expressa o imperfectivo, AAA, o qual codifica o passado recente, ou **no morfema** de passado não-recente, YYY.

HERE'S MY TAKE

In the past tense, the first person singular is expressed in the verb through the progressive spreading of the high tone of the first mora of the syllable that expresses the imperfective, AAA, which denotes the recent past, or on the non-recent past morpheme, YYY.
zabrowa
Local time: 04:37
[no need to translate it]
Explanation:
I assume you're asking what "no morfema" is referring to. The sentence is muddy, but my understanding is that there are two forms of the past: AAA (recent past) and YYY (non-recent past). The 1st-person-marking elongated tone on the tonic syllable occurs in both cases. The sentence doesn't make it clear whether both AAA and YYY are imperfective, but even if they aren't, my version gets around that.

Here is how I would handle the sentence:

"In the past tense, the first person singular is indicated within the verb by a progressively spreading high tone that starts with the onset mora of the syllable that expresses the imperfective: AAA (recent past), or YYY (non-recent past)."

Here's one for you: the first mora is the "onset mora."

guishing between trimoraic (with **onset mora**), bimoraic and monomoraic sylla-. bles. Even problematic ["k:1­da:] can be accounted for if we modify slightly ...
www.degruyter.de/journals/tlr/pdf/20_79.pdf

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Note added at 21 hrs (2006-10-26 06:14:19 GMT)
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The phrase "no morfema" is just a reference to YYY. It's redundant.
Selected response from:

Muriel Vasconcellos
United States
Local time: 19:37
Grading comment
thanks thanks thanks thanks thanks thanks
THANKS
4 KudoZ points were awarded for this answer

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Summary of answers provided
4 +2in the morpheme
Teresa Bento
4[no need to translate it]
Muriel Vasconcellos


  

Answers


6 mins   confidence: Answerer confidence 4/5Answerer confidence 4/5 peer agreement (net): +2
in the morpheme


Explanation:
morpheme: "the minimal unit of meaning. Morphology: "The study of the internal structure of words, and of the rules by which words are formed..."

in An Introduction to Language, FROMKIN, RODMAN

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Note added at 7 mins (2006-10-25 09:04:32 GMT)
--------------------------------------------------

"do Gr. morphé, forma


s. m., Gram.,
elemento de formação das palavras que se junta aos semantemas ou raízes para exprimir relações, como os afixos e as desinências flexionais;

elemento de formação ou de relação de palavras."

http://www.priberam.pt/dlpo/definir_resultados.aspx



Teresa Bento
Portugal
Local time: 03:37
Native speaker of: Native in PortuguesePortuguese
Notes to answerer
Asker: Perhaps this is my fault for not being clearer in my question - I understand the words that I am translating but I struggle to convey the message clearly. In this case, the grammatical status of the morpheme in question was ambiguous and so I was looking for clarification on the status of the morpheme in question. I apologize for the lack of clarity. In the future I'll be clearer. :)


Peer comments on this answer (and responses from the answerer)
agree  Susy Ordaz
20 mins
  -> obrigada, Susy

agree  Claudio Mazotti
58 mins
  -> obrigada, Claudio

neutral  Muriel Vasconcellos: Matt's entire project is about morphemes. I believe he is asking what the phrase is referring to.
19 hrs
  -> maybe you're right, but I assumed the title was the question in which he needed help...
Login to enter a peer comment (or grade)

20 hrs   confidence: Answerer confidence 4/5Answerer confidence 4/5
[no need to translate it]


Explanation:
I assume you're asking what "no morfema" is referring to. The sentence is muddy, but my understanding is that there are two forms of the past: AAA (recent past) and YYY (non-recent past). The 1st-person-marking elongated tone on the tonic syllable occurs in both cases. The sentence doesn't make it clear whether both AAA and YYY are imperfective, but even if they aren't, my version gets around that.

Here is how I would handle the sentence:

"In the past tense, the first person singular is indicated within the verb by a progressively spreading high tone that starts with the onset mora of the syllable that expresses the imperfective: AAA (recent past), or YYY (non-recent past)."

Here's one for you: the first mora is the "onset mora."

guishing between trimoraic (with **onset mora**), bimoraic and monomoraic sylla-. bles. Even problematic ["k:1­da:] can be accounted for if we modify slightly ...
www.degruyter.de/journals/tlr/pdf/20_79.pdf

--------------------------------------------------
Note added at 21 hrs (2006-10-26 06:14:19 GMT)
--------------------------------------------------

The phrase "no morfema" is just a reference to YYY. It's redundant.

Muriel Vasconcellos
United States
Local time: 19:37
Specializes in field
Native speaker of: Native in EnglishEnglish
PRO pts in category: 2542
Grading comment
thanks thanks thanks thanks thanks thanks
THANKS
Login to enter a peer comment (or grade)




Voters for reclassification
as
PRO / non-PRO
Non-PRO (1): Ivana de Sousa Santos


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