Not really! 08:26 Sep 3, 2011
That changes the meaning completely!
The reason it's expressed this specific way in EN is because it's not the amounts themselves that are going to be deducted, but rather, the commission on them that the salesman might otherwise have earned. I.e. if a salesman has poor payers as customers, not only will s/he lose their commission, but they will even be 'fined' by having the same amount again deducted from their overall commission.
So your formulation in FR needs to reflect this rather different situation... |