GLOSSARY ENTRY (DERIVED FROM QUESTION BELOW) | ||||||
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16:17 Dec 6, 2003 |
English language (monolingual) [PRO] Bus/Financial | |||||||
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| Selected response from: Peter Linton (X) Local time: 22:21 | ||||||
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SUMMARY OF ALL EXPLANATIONS PROVIDED | ||||
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5 | to write off a bad loan saves money in taxes |
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3 +1 | disposal of excess of liabilities over assets |
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1 +1 | sell off any surplus assets of the borrowers |
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to write off a bad loan saves money in taxes Explanation: but for someone who owes you money to sell their assets and then pay you, can mean more income rather than just tax savings, they pay you back with the cash they get from selling the asset and probably pay you back with the interest they owe you that's what it seems like to me -------------------------------------------------- Note added at 2003-12-06 16:27:57 (GMT) -------------------------------------------------- I think \"at borrowers\" means under that line item on the balance sheet, maybe |
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sell off any surplus assets of the borrowers Explanation: I mostly agree with Jane Lamb-Ruiz's interpretation, except that it sounds to me as if it is the banks holding the NPLs that will start to forcibly sell excess assets owned by the borrowers, to clear the debt, instead of just writing off the loans. -------------------------------------------------- Note added at 2003-12-07 22:04:42 (GMT) -------------------------------------------------- My comment on Anjo Sterringa\'s answer below: I agree with you that the bank\'s objective is to reduce the excess of liabilities over assets. You compare that to selling off your home. But there I disagree. To me, \"excess assets\" implies that the assets to be sold are not critical to the business - in fact, I think the bank wants to enable the core business to continue, miinus non-core assets. To use your analogy, it is not a question of seliling somebody\'s home, but more like selling off most of the furniture, the paintings, the wine cellar, the family silver, but leaving enough to let the owner survive and work. That\'s how I read it. But more opinions would be welcome. |
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disposal of excess of liabilities over assets Explanation: Maybe far fetched, but if you read it like that, the sentence makes sense. I suppose they write-off loans in 2003, so they have less overindebted people in 2004. It would seem strange saying 'excess assets' at borrower when they are planning to sell off your home- that is not an excess asset. That is why I think something in the text is missing... See EURODIC the financial situation in which the realisable value of the assets is less than the total liabilities; the financial situation in which the total liabilities exceed the realisable value of the available assets Reference Internat.Account.Lex,UEC-Group Accounts (1) TERM insolvency Reference Internat.Account.Lex,UEC-Group Accounts Note {DOM} commercial law:insolvency and bankruptcy (2) TERM excess indebtedness Reference GLOSSARIO DEI TERMINI DI FINANZA,IX/2280/83 Note {DOM} commercial law:insolvency and bankruptcy (3) TERM excess of liabilities over assets Reference GLOSSARIO DEI TERMINI DI FINANZA,IX/2280/83 Note {DOM} commercial law:insolvency and bankruptcy (4) TERM overextension Reference GLOSSARIO DEI TERMINI DI FINANZA,IX/2280/83 Note {DOM} commercial law:insolvency and bankruptcy (5) TERM overindebtedness Reference GLOSSARIO DEI TERMINI DI FINANZA,IX/2280/83 Note {DOM} commercial law:insolvency and bankruptcy |
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