21:29 Mar 5, 2007 |
English language (monolingual) [PRO] Social Sciences - International Org/Dev/Coop / macroeconomics/microeconomics | |||||||
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| Selected response from: BrigitteHilgner Austria Local time: 08:58 | ||||||
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4 +1 | the statement is correct |
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3 | "investment" - |
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the statement is correct Explanation: Domestic demand may not be a very common term, but to put it simply, it means: consumption (private people) + investment (companies) + government expenditure (for example for new fighter planes) If we ignore foreigners, the savings of private people in the country are used to finance the investment of companies (because they ask their banks for credits). So it all makes sense. May I recomment Paul A. Samuelson & William D. Nordhaus: Economics? The book is good to read, easy to understand and a great help when it comes to understanding economics. -------------------------------------------------- Note added at 18 mins (2007-03-05 21:48:40 GMT) -------------------------------------------------- In economics, the term "investment" (in machines, plants, etc.) is used in a different sense than in finance (invsetment in stocks, bonds, etc.). |
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"investment" - Explanation: in EE countries (or certainy in mine, Poland) the word 'investment' is frequently used (or misused?) to mean spending for capital projects such as building roads, houses, shopping centres, etc. Your sentence sounds very familiar to me - looks like a literary translation from Polish meaning that there will be less individual consumption and more capital projects. And yes, 'private' is also often used to mean 'individual'. So frequently "private consumption" is meant as the opposite of "company spending". HTH, Magda |
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