interamente partecipata era stata dichiarata fallita da due an

English translation: XXX, a wholly/fully subsidiary company, had been declared bankrupt two years before

GLOSSARY ENTRY (DERIVED FROM QUESTION BELOW)
Italian term or phrase: interamente partecipata era stata dichiarata fallita da due an
English translation:XXX, a wholly/fully subsidiary company, had been declared bankrupt two years before
Entered by: Paola Biscosi

18:14 Sep 7, 2006
Italian to English translations [PRO]
Law/Patents - Law (general) / Bankruptcy Act
Italian term or phrase: interamente partecipata era stata dichiarata fallita da due an
la società interamente partecipata, XXX, era stata dichiarata fallita da due anni.
Paola Biscosi
Italy
Local time: 22:05
XXX, a wholly/fully subsidiary company, had been declared bankrupt two years before
Explanation:
I may be wrong, but I don't think we can use "declared bankrupt" with "for two years." "To be declared bankrupt" is an event, not a state, while "for two years" is typically [+stative]; hence, the clash.

I think you could actually even use "was" instead of "had been," that is, the simple past rather than the past perfect. At any rate, given that there is no more context, It seems to me that "before" is in order here, as the reference time appears to be a past one. If the reference time were "nopw," then you would have to use "ago."

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Note added at 1 hr (2006-09-07 19:29:58 GMT)
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"nopw" = "now" --sorry!
Selected response from:

transparx
United States
Local time: 16:05
Grading comment
Ri-grazie!!!
4 KudoZ points were awarded for this answer



Summary of answers provided
4 +1the XXX joint venture has been officially adjudicated as bankrupt two years ago
Romanian Translator (X)
4fully participated, XXX, had been declared bankrupt for two years.
Kenan Atalay
2 +1XXX, a wholly/fully subsidiary company, had been declared bankrupt two years before
transparx


  

Answers


48 mins   confidence: Answerer confidence 4/5Answerer confidence 4/5
interamente partecipata era stata dichiarata fallita da due an
fully participated, XXX, had been declared bankrupt for two years.


Explanation:
the company fully participated, XXX, had been declared bankrupt for two years.

Kenan Atalay
Turkey
Local time: 23:05
Works in field
Native speaker of: Turkish
PRO pts in category: 2
Login to enter a peer comment (or grade)

47 mins   confidence: Answerer confidence 4/5Answerer confidence 4/5 peer agreement (net): +1
the XXX joint venture has been officially adjudicated as bankrupt two years ago


Explanation:
Contractor Application: Entity - Corporation, Patnership, Joint ...
File Format: PDF/Adobe Acrobat
The contracting entity (corporation, partnership, joint venture, ... been adjudicated as bankrupt, or is presently in the process of bankruptcy proceedings? ...
www.hawaii.gov/dcca/areas/pvl/boards/contractor/application... - Similar pages

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Note added at 50 mins (2006-09-07 19:04:13 GMT)
--------------------------------------------------

PDF] Internal Background Investigation Questionnaire
File Format: PDF/Adobe Acrobat - View as HTML
“Person” – Any individual, corporation, partnership, joint venture, ... Persons”) been adjudicated bankrupt or placed in receivership, filed bankruptcy, or ...
www.newyorkbiz.com/Info-Opp/InternalEDCQuestionnaire.pdf - Similar pages

Romanian Translator (X)
United Kingdom
Local time: 21:05
Works in field
Native speaker of: Romanian
PRO pts in category: 30

Peer comments on this answer (and responses from the answerer)
agree  Adrian MM. (X): adjudicated insolvent. Strictly, companies do not go bankrupt, but are wound up on grounds of insolvency etc.
1 day 17 hrs
  -> thank you!
Login to enter a peer comment (or grade)

1 hr   confidence: Answerer confidence 2/5Answerer confidence 2/5 peer agreement (net): +1
XXX, a wholly/fully subsidiary company, had been declared bankrupt two years before


Explanation:
I may be wrong, but I don't think we can use "declared bankrupt" with "for two years." "To be declared bankrupt" is an event, not a state, while "for two years" is typically [+stative]; hence, the clash.

I think you could actually even use "was" instead of "had been," that is, the simple past rather than the past perfect. At any rate, given that there is no more context, It seems to me that "before" is in order here, as the reference time appears to be a past one. If the reference time were "nopw," then you would have to use "ago."

--------------------------------------------------
Note added at 1 hr (2006-09-07 19:29:58 GMT)
--------------------------------------------------

"nopw" = "now" --sorry!

transparx
United States
Local time: 16:05
Works in field
Native speaker of: Native in ItalianItalian
PRO pts in category: 36
Grading comment
Ri-grazie!!!

Peer comments on this answer (and responses from the answerer)
agree  maryrose: Yes, exactly, I don't know why your confidence level is so low!
5 hrs
  -> thank you maryrose --because there isn't much context...
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